1) In the beginning was the Word. John 1:1
When John begins his letter, “In the beginning was the word”, he is speaking as a introduction to his gospel about Jesus. His conclusion “there are also many other things which Jesus did”, makes this clear.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (toward, beside) the God, and God was the Word. This was in the beginning with (beside) the God. (John 1:1-2)
John starts his record with an idea of “the word”. He does not begin at Adam, or Abraham or Moses, or even with Joseph or Mary but with the words of John the Baptist. John and his brother Andrew were disciples first of John (John 1:40). They heard the 'the word' about Jesus before they saw Jesus. John writes first of John the Baptist who was, like Jesus, sent by God,
He (John) said, “I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make straight the way of the LORD, as said the prophet Esaias”. (John 1:23)
As this is John's record, and his experience, it is reasonable to say that for him the beginning was “the word” going forth! John then notes this word “was God”, which is not surprising as after over 400 years of not hearing the voice of God in the nation, John the Baptist heard God speak.
John the Baptist said to John and his disciples,
“And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, 'Upon whom you shall see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizes with the Holy Spirit'. And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God” (John 1:33-34).
John heard 'the word' and 'the word was God' speaking. It is very simple communication. John writes always very simply.
It should not be hard to understand the following, which was also written by John,
Hereby know you the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God: And every spirit that confesses not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. (1John 4:2-3)
John's readers could know who was “of God” by a simple test. They had to say Jesus came as human. To come 'in the flesh' is to be fully human. The Bible defines that all flesh is 'as grass' (Isaiah 40:6, 1 Peter 1:24), which will die and perish (Job 34:15). Those who were not “of God” existed in John's day. It is simple. John continues,
And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as you have heard from the beginning, you should walk in it. For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist. (2John 1:6-7).
Is John saying that the people he was writing to had heard from “the beginning”, from Eden? That is impossible. They are alive so it must be from in John's lifetime. For John “the beginning” was the time he heard Jesus proclaimed as the son of God! In any case the main point is plain. John says those that don't confess publicly that Jesus came in the flesh are anti-Christ.
John uses “the beginning” in the same way in both his letter and at the start of his gospel. It means when he and the world first understood the way of the LORD, where Jesus was the son of God come in the flesh.
For those who wish to go deeper we recommend reading the following link which opens on a new page and coming back to the more complicated analysis of the logic below.
Logical Analysis of John 1:1
The following is a literal translation,
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (πρός pros toward, beside) the God, and God was the Word. This was in the beginning with (πρός pros toward, beside) the God. (John 1:1-2)
To show the logic of this passage, let us give the two subjects an algebraic equivalent.
- 'The word 'is 'A' and
'God' is 'B'.
The word πρόςis 'beside'.
In the beginning was A - where also
A was beside B - also
B was A
In the beginning A was beside B
How can something be both beside another thing and also be that thing? Physically this is impossible. However, this analysis shows a pattern, which is: A, A-B, B=A, A-B. This pattern of repetition and linked thoughts is intrinsic to the poetry of the psalms, for example: “Law-of Yahweh perfect converting soul, Testimony-of Yahweh sure making-wise simpletons” (Psalm 19:7) and “Like ointment the-good above the head coming-down over the beard, beard Aaron coming down over collar garment”(Psalm 133:2). It is likely John is writing like a Hebrew and poetically.
Though physically impossible, metaphysically, what can be both 'beside' a person and still 'part of' them? We look at the passage and see the subject is “the word”, therefore, an answer to the question is a person's “word” or expression of intent to act, such as if they make a vow, or, “give their word”.
We understand what it means to “give our word”. Our word is part of us but we can 'give' it to another. When a person's promise or a vow is communicated to another, it is “out there” or beside them, but, it is still part of them as they will have act on it.
John's logic can only refer to the spoken word, and not just any spoken word, but one which will still be part of the person, such as a vow or promise spoken aloud or put another way, an expressed intent or promise to do something. John's phrase “in the beginning” is not directly referring to creation, but is loaded with referential meaning. At creation the Mighty Ones, Elohim, speak and then the action is carried out. Once they spoke, the command was beside them and as they work to carry it out it is still a part of them.
John, however, has a reason for referring to “the word” in his introduction. John's introduction is the opposite of his conclusion. In his introduction he speaks of “the word”. In his conclusion he writes regarding “the things which Jesus did” or the acts of Jesus could be so great a volume of books it could not be contained in the world. From his conclusion it can be confirmed that the subject of his writing is Jesus' acts. In John's view, Jesus was shown not as 'the' word, but as many words that would fill many books.
John also in Revelation writes of “the word of God”.
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The word of God. (Rev 19:13)
We are told a symbolic being has a name which is called “the word of God”. This symbolic being may be identified as Jesus by the symbols used, such as the garment dipped in blood. It does not say Jesus is “the Word”, rather that his name is called “the word of God”. This has implications as no word or phrase is wasted in the Bible. Your name is not you, just as Jesus' name is not Jesus (the name is not unique as it is shared by Joshua son of Nun). Therefore, it cannot be said with certainty that Jesus in the analysis of John 1 above is the equivalent of 'the Word'. The most that can be said is his name is equivalent.
As the symbolic being is Jesus, and the name equals 'the word of God', and Jesus' name means 'salvation', then, John is writing that 'salvation' equals 'the word of God'. To make the implications of this clear the analysis of John above is continued by the addition of Revelation 19 and 'salvation' is represented by 'C'. 'The word 'is 'A' and 'God' is 'B'.
In the beginning was A - where also
A was beside B - also
B was A
In the beginning A was beside B
and where
in terms of the name A of B = C
Some try and equate “was beside/with” to “of” and substitute 'Jesus' for 'the word' but neither can be sustained. Both logic and examining the Greek text does not allow this.
John1 ὁ Λόγος(A) ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν(B)
Revelation 19 ὁ λόγος(A) τοῦ Θεοῦ(B)
It can be seen that John 1 has an extra qualification in the relationship between 'the Word' and 'God'. The passage in Revelation 19 is clearly different, and there “the word” is not capitalized.
By combining the information from John 1 and Revelation together, what is meant by 'the word' can be better understood. Revelation 19 says that the word of God is equal to the name 'salvation'. John 1 says that 'the Word' was beside, went out from God, or pertained to God. John then qualifies this by saying that God was 'the Word' (Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος). Further to this John adds that “the word was made flesh” (John 1:14) and clarifies what he meant by writing that that 'the word made flesh' was 'the only begotten of the father'. 'Made' can be equated to 'begotten'. Therefore the father, or God, made 'the word', or his promise, into flesh. The ability to command or promise 'the word' is Yahweh's alone. He made a special creation by his will, or expressed intent which is 'the word made flesh' – hence also Jesus' name meaning 'salvation' is called 'the word of God'.
That 'the Word' is 'made flesh' by God indicates that 'the Word' is in the power of God. The phrase 'the word of God' occurs 45 times in the scriptures and the range of usage encompasses: a specific revelation to a prophet, describing the creative work of God, an expression for the gospel message and the sum total of the commands of God. The whole Bible is now often called 'the word of God' (as of March 2007 the phrase “the Bible is the word of God” occurs about 132,000 times in the Internet). The Bible contains many words and many commands, why is it “the word” which is singular? In all of the scriptures only John has explained why this is the case. He made the profound statement that 'the Word' is both beside God and with Him. The singular 'the Word' is the fullness or entirety of Yahweh's expressed intent. It is John who writes that no one can add to God's words or take away from them (Revelation 22:18-19). In completion of the work of revelation of the expressed intent of Yahweh there is a final total singular entity, 'the Word'.
The investigation of this passage suggests a final point based on the knowledge that John understood Hebrew and on a number of occasions writes a translation “in the Hebrew tongue” (of the other writers only Luke does this). John wanted to make the statement of his whole understanding of the singular purpose of God, and he took his understanding from the Hebrew scriptures. When Moses asked for the name of God, Moses is told His name is “I will be” Exodus 3:14 (אהיה see the Hebrew text in Exodus 3:12). When others other than God speak this becomes “He will be” (or Yahweh). Therefore the name of God means an expressed intent to exist. If Yahweh says “He will be”, he becomes all things. John then writes,
“All things were made by him (the word/God); and without him (the word/God) was not any thing made that was made” (John 1:3).
The word is both the expressed intent of what Yahweh 'will become' and his continuing actions, which are the things he has made exist. This is his name. John adds that “in him (the word/God) was life”.
Analysis shows John 1:1 refers to the nature of the expressed intent of Yahweh. Revelation 19:13 is precise, speaking of Jesus whose name 'Yah is salvation' is 'the word of God'. The conclusion is further supported by the context of the description of the name of God in the Hebrew scriptures, which was well known to John, even if it is less well known to us. In conclusion John 1:1 cannot be used as proof to equate Jesus with Yahweh, rather the reverse is true. John clearly says that the word preceded everything and by the Word Jesus was made, or came into existence, when he was born and was confirmed when he was proclaimed the son of God. In addition, John underlines the point that Jesus was made flesh or fully human and like Adam, the son of man, 'dying to death'. John thinks this point is so important he returns to it in his epistles. It is a proof so we can know whether a person is of God.
For more The son of God"
Therefore judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come, who both will bring to light the hidden things of darkness, and will make manifest the counsels of the hearts: and then shall every man have praise of God. (1 Corinthians 4:5)
This may be one of the most misunderstood passages of the Bible. Paul is notorious for long sentences of connected thoughts, and this is part of a complex wide ranging thought which lasts 2 chapters, and includes what seems opposite advice:
But now I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolater, or a railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat. For what have I to do to judge them also that are without? do not ye judge them that are within? But them that are without God judgeth. Therefore put away from among yourselves that wicked person. (1 Cor. 5:11-13)
As I was thinking to write this article, having just read Psalm 46 as I do each year on that day, on January 25th a Bible was found untouched after a tornado hit Hattiesburg, Mississippi.
We have been given many time periods to prophetic events in the Bible. Many people think it too hard, and do not make an effort to understand them. However, if they were not to be understood, why were they given? And the Bible says the wise shall understand (Daniel 12:10).
In the light of the findings of science, how literally do we take what the scriptures say about the power of the God of the Bible, Yahweh Elohim (literally He who will become Mighty Ones)? Science at its best is a measurement of observable and repeatable phenomenon wrapped up in explanations which abound in analogy. There is no doubt in the benefit of investigating phenomena of the natural world. The surprising thing is that the more we investigate natural phenomena, the more it fits the explanations recorded over 2000 years ago.
The God of Israel is approachable and reasonable. He often speaks directly to his people. The following will seek to understand a passage where he speaks via the prophet Amos which has a few variant translations.
